Did the pre-Indo-European languages develop earlier than the Indo-European languages?
Thus, the Pre-Indo-European languages must have developed earlier than or, in some cases, alongside the Indo-European languages that ultimately displaced them.
What are the substrates of Indo-European languages?
in Northern Eurasia, the Paleosiberian languages and the Uralic languages, although in Finland there is also evidence of an Indo-European substrate preceding Finno-Ugric, as well as Paleo-European substrates preceding both. Examples of suggested or known substrate influences on specific Indo-European languages include the following:
What is pre-Proto-Indo-European language?
Pre-Indo-European languages, several (not necessarily related) ancient languages in prehistoric Europe and South Asia before the arrival of Indo-European languages Pre-Proto-Indo-European, theoretical reconstruction of language earlier than the Proto-Indo-European language
What does pre-Indo-European mean?
Pre-Indo-European means “preceding Indo-European languages “. Pre-Indo-European languages, several (not necessarily related) ancient languages in prehistoric Europe and South Asia before the arrival of Indo-European languages Pre-Proto-Indo-European, theoretical reconstruction of language earlier than the Proto-Indo-European language
Who were the pre Indo-Europeans?
In 1953, the linguist Johannes Hubschmid identified at least five pre-Indo-European language families in Western Europe: Eurafrican, which covered North Africa, Italy, Spain and France; Hispano-Caucasian, which replaced Eurafrican and stretched from Northern Spain to the Caucasus Mountains; Iberian, which was spoken by …
What is Renfrew’s theory?
Professor Renfrew’s Anatolian hypothesis suggested that modern Indo-European languages originated in Anatolia in Neolithic times, and linked their arrival in Europe with the spread of farming.
Where did the Yamnaya come from?
About 5,000 years ago, herders called the Yamnaya entered Europe from the eastern Steppe region – in present day Ukraine and Russia. These horse riding metal workers may have brought Indo-European languages with them; today this language family comprises most of the tongues spoken in Europe.
What is the Indo part of Indo-European?
Branches of Indo-European (IE) include Indo-Iranian (Sanskrit and the Iranian languages), Greek, Italic (Latin and related languages), Celtic, Germanic (which includes English), Armenian, Balto-Slavic, Albanian, Anatolian, and Tocharian.
What is the Kurgan hearth theory?
The Kurgan hypothesis (also known as the Kurgan theory or Kurgan model) or Steppe theory is the most widely accepted proposal to identify the Proto-Indo-European homeland from which the Indo-European languages spread out throughout Europe and parts of Asia.
What is the Nostratic hypothesis?
Nostratic hypothesis, Proposal of an overarching northern Eurasian language family, still of uncertain validity. Holger Pedersen was the first to suggest that the Indo-European, Uralic, Altaic, Afroasiatic, and other language families might belong in one broad category (Nostratic).
What did the Yamnaya eat?
Anthony speculates that the Yamnaya ate a diet consisting of meat, milk, yogurt, cheese, and soups made from seeds and wild vegetables, and probably consumed mead.
What happened to the Yamnaya people?
Between 5000 and 4000 years ago, the Yamnaya and their descendants colonised swathes of Europe, leaving a genetic legacy that persists to this day. Their arrival coincided with profound social and cultural changes.
Are all Europeans Yamnaya?
By comparing DNA from various Bronze-Age European cultures to that of both Yamnaya and the Neolithic farmers, researchers found that most had a mixture of the two backgrounds. However the proportions varied, with the Corded Ware people of northern Europe having the highest proportion of Yamnaya ancestry.
Why is it called Indo-European?
The term Indo-European is essentially geographical since it refers to the easternmost extension of the family from the Indian subcontinent to its westernmost reach in Europe. The family includes most of the languages of Europe, as well as many languages of Southwest, Central and South Asia.
What are the 4 Indo-European languages?
The Indo-European languages have a large number of branches: Anatolian, Indo-Iranian, Greek, Italic, Celtic, Germanic, Armenian, Tocharian, Balto-Slavic and Albanian.
What is the difference between Proto-Indo-European and Indo-European?
While ‘Proto-Indo-Europeans’ is used in scholarship to designate the group of speakers associated with the reconstructed proto-language and culture, the term ‘Indo-Europeans’ may refer to any historical people that speak an Indo-European language.
When was the Indo-European language invented?
The oldest Indo-European language texts date from the 19th century BC in Kültepe and Hindus text Rigveda from around same time, now in Turkey, and India and while estimates vary widely, the spoken Indo-European languages are believed to have developed at the latest by the 3rd millennium BC (see Proto-Indo-European Urheimat hypotheses ).
What languages survived pre-Indo-European?
Surviving pre-Indo-European languages are held to include the following: in South Asia, the Dravidian languages, Munda languages (a branch of the Austroasiatic languages ), Nihali, Kusunda, Vedda and Burushaski. in the Caucasus, the Kartvelian, Northeast Caucasian, Northwest Caucasian. in the Iberian Peninsula, Basque.
What were the languages of Europe and the Near East called?
Before World War II, all the unclassified languages of Europe and the Near East were commonly referred to as Asianic languages , and the term encompassed several languages that were later found to be Indo-European (such as Lydian ), and others (such as Hurro-Urartian, Hattic) were classified as distinct language families.
What do red dots mean in the Indo-European language diagram?
A diagram showing Pre-Indo-European languages. Red dots indicate populations before the Indo-European peoples migrated from the steppes.
When was the Danube Valley?
Anthony, David with Jennifer Y. Chi (eds., 2009). The Lost World of Old Europe: The Danube Valley, 5000–3500 BC.
Did the pre-Indo-European languages survive?
Thus, the Pre-Indo-European languages must have developed earlier than or, in some cases, alongside the Indo-European languages that ultimately displaced them. A handful of the pre-Indo-European languages still survive ; in Europe, Basque retains a localised strength, with fewer than a million native speakers, but the Dravidian languages …
Is “pre Indo European” universally accepted?
The term pre-Indo-European is not universally accepted, as some linguists maintain the idea of the relatively-late arrival of the speakers of the unclassified languages to Europe, possibly even after the Indo-European languages, and so prefer to speak about non-Indo-European languages. A new term, Paleo-European, …
What is the pre-proto-indo-European language?
Pre-Proto-Indo-European, theoretical reconstruction of language earlier than the Proto-Indo-European language. Old Europe (archaeology), a Neolithic culture in southeastern Europe before the arrival of speakers of Indo-European languages.
When was the Neolithic period?
Pre-Germanic (disambiguation) Indo-European (disambiguation) Neolithic Europe, the period when Neolithic technology was present in Europe, roughly 7000 BCE to 1700 BCE. Proto-Indo-European Urheimat hypotheses, proposed homeland of the common ancestor of Indo-European languages.
No Evidence of Farming on The Steppe
The foregoing discussion makes it clear that there should be evidence of barley and wheat cultivation in any proposed Proto-Indo-European homeland as well as plentiful evidence of agricultural practices. However, this requirement puts a formidable obstacle for the proposal of the Steppe as the PIE homeland. Mallory (2014) poin…
Indo-Iranians and Agriculture
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Agriculture Among The Harappans
In contrast to the steppe, agriculture among the Harappans was quite complex and advanced and they cultivated a wide variety of crops including wheat, barley and millets.
How did a group such as the Indo-Iranians, who supposedly originated on the steppe where there is no evidence of cultivation of either of the major crops or even of rudimentary agriculture, manage to achieve the feat of preserving the Proto-Indo-European terms of agriculture including that for wheat and baley, after having overrun the supposed non-IE speaking advanced urban agriculturalists of BMAC and Harappan civilizations ? How does …